Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 00:23
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you caught a shoplifter at your yard sale, how would you handle it?
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Practice Report (6/9): Notes from the sideline - New York Giants
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What will help me to get a bigger butt naturally?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.